Codeforces Round 673 (Div. 1) |
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Finished |
You are given an array $$$a$$$ consisting of $$$n$$$ integers numbered from $$$1$$$ to $$$n$$$.
Let's define the $$$k$$$-amazing number of the array as the minimum number that occurs in all of the subsegments of the array having length $$$k$$$ (recall that a subsegment of $$$a$$$ of length $$$k$$$ is a contiguous part of $$$a$$$ containing exactly $$$k$$$ elements). If there is no integer occuring in all subsegments of length $$$k$$$ for some value of $$$k$$$, then the $$$k$$$-amazing number is $$$-1$$$.
For each $$$k$$$ from $$$1$$$ to $$$n$$$ calculate the $$$k$$$-amazing number of the array $$$a$$$.
The first line contains one integer $$$t$$$ ($$$1 \le t \le 1000$$$) — the number of test cases. Then $$$t$$$ test cases follow.
The first line of each test case contains one integer $$$n$$$ ($$$1 \le n \le 3 \cdot 10^5$$$) — the number of elements in the array. The second line contains $$$n$$$ integers $$$a_1, a_2, \dots, a_n$$$ ($$$1 \le a_i \le n$$$) — the elements of the array.
It is guaranteed that the sum of $$$n$$$ over all test cases does not exceed $$$3 \cdot 10^5$$$.
For each test case print $$$n$$$ integers, where the $$$i$$$-th integer is equal to the $$$i$$$-amazing number of the array.
3 5 1 2 3 4 5 5 4 4 4 4 2 6 1 3 1 5 3 1
-1 -1 3 2 1 -1 4 4 4 2 -1 -1 1 1 1 1
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