Codeforces Round 686 (Div. 3) |
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Finished |
You are given one integer $$$n$$$ ($$$n > 1$$$).
Recall that a permutation of length $$$n$$$ is an array consisting of $$$n$$$ distinct integers from $$$1$$$ to $$$n$$$ in arbitrary order. For example, $$$[2, 3, 1, 5, 4]$$$ is a permutation of length $$$5$$$, but $$$[1, 2, 2]$$$ is not a permutation ($$$2$$$ appears twice in the array) and $$$[1, 3, 4]$$$ is also not a permutation ($$$n = 3$$$ but there is $$$4$$$ in the array).
Your task is to find a permutation $$$p$$$ of length $$$n$$$ that there is no index $$$i$$$ ($$$1 \le i \le n$$$) such that $$$p_i = i$$$ (so, for all $$$i$$$ from $$$1$$$ to $$$n$$$ the condition $$$p_i \ne i$$$ should be satisfied).
You have to answer $$$t$$$ independent test cases.
If there are several answers, you can print any. It can be proven that the answer exists for each $$$n > 1$$$.
The first line of the input contains one integer $$$t$$$ ($$$1 \le t \le 100$$$) — the number of test cases. Then $$$t$$$ test cases follow.
The only line of the test case contains one integer $$$n$$$ ($$$2 \le n \le 100$$$) — the length of the permutation you have to find.
For each test case, print $$$n$$$ distinct integers $$$p_1, p_2, \ldots, p_n$$$ — a permutation that there is no index $$$i$$$ ($$$1 \le i \le n$$$) such that $$$p_i = i$$$ (so, for all $$$i$$$ from $$$1$$$ to $$$n$$$ the condition $$$p_i \ne i$$$ should be satisfied).
If there are several answers, you can print any. It can be proven that the answer exists for each $$$n > 1$$$.
2 2 5
2 1 2 1 5 3 4
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