Codeforces Round 842 (Div. 2) |
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Finished |
You are given an array of positive integers $$$a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_n$$$ of length $$$n$$$.
In one operation you can jump from index $$$i$$$ to index $$$j$$$ ($$$1 \le i \le j \le n$$$) by paying $$$\min(a_i, a_{i + 1}, \ldots, a_j) \cdot (j - i)^2$$$ eris.
For all $$$k$$$ from $$$1$$$ to $$$n$$$, find the minimum number of eris needed to get from index $$$1$$$ to index $$$k$$$.
The first line contains a single integer $$$n$$$ ($$$2 \le n \le 4 \cdot 10^5$$$).
The second line contains $$$n$$$ integers $$$a_1,a_2,\ldots a_n$$$ ($$$1 \le a_i \le n$$$).
Output $$$n$$$ integers — the $$$k$$$-th integer is the minimum number of eris needed to reach index $$$k$$$ if you start from index $$$1$$$.
3 2 1 3
0 1 2
6 1 4 1 6 3 2
0 1 2 3 6 8
2 1 2
0 1
4 1 4 4 4
0 1 4 8
In the first example:
In the fourth example from $$$1$$$ to $$$4$$$: $$$1 \rightarrow 3 \rightarrow 4$$$ — the cost is $$$\min(1, 4, 4) \cdot (3 - 1) ^ 2 + \min(4, 4) \cdot (4 - 3) ^ 2 = 4 + 4 = 8$$$.
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