if a1+a2+a3+a4>b1+b2+b3+b4 then
is it right to say that p.a1+q.a2+r.a3+s.a4>p.b1+q.b2+r.b3+s.b4?????
# | User | Rating |
---|---|---|
1 | tourist | 3857 |
2 | jiangly | 3747 |
3 | orzdevinwang | 3706 |
4 | jqdai0815 | 3682 |
5 | ksun48 | 3591 |
6 | gamegame | 3477 |
7 | Benq | 3468 |
8 | Radewoosh | 3463 |
9 | ecnerwala | 3451 |
10 | heuristica | 3431 |
# | User | Contrib. |
---|---|---|
1 | cry | 166 |
2 | -is-this-fft- | 161 |
3 | Qingyu | 160 |
4 | Dominater069 | 159 |
5 | atcoder_official | 157 |
6 | adamant | 153 |
7 | Um_nik | 152 |
8 | djm03178 | 151 |
9 | luogu_official | 150 |
10 | awoo | 148 |
if a1+a2+a3+a4>b1+b2+b3+b4 then
is it right to say that p.a1+q.a2+r.a3+s.a4>p.b1+q.b2+r.b3+s.b4?????
Name |
---|
No we can't say that
No, even if $$$p, q, r, s \ge 0$$$ you can't say for sure, counter-example: $$$a_1 = 5, a_2 = 5, a_3 = 3, a_4 = 5$$$ & $$$b_1 = 4, b_2 = 4, b_3 = 5, b_4 = 4$$$ then with $$$p = 1, q = 1, r = 2, s = 1$$$ the inequality does not hold.
will it work for a situation like p>q>r>s????
No, just permute sequence a and sequence b according to the coefficient sequence and you will get a counter-case.
please give a case........
it depends upon the sequence of numbers you are taking on both sides for example as per you condition let p = 4 , q = 3, r = 2 , s = 1 and left side sequence = {5,4,3,2} (sum = 14) and right side sequence = {9 , 1 , 1 , 1} (sum 12) so left side after multiplication = 40 and right side = 42.. it became large due to multiplying p * 9 which is 36. so you see it depends on the sequence you are considering.
great thank you...