Can Anyone give the idea for the following Problem LOJ — 1021 Painful Bases
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Codeforces Round 976 (Div. 2) and Divide By Zero 9.0
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Codeforces Round 976 (Div. 2) and Divide By Zero 9.0
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Auto comment: topic has been updated by sifat_15 (previous revision, new revision, compare).
Let dp[mask][rem] represent the number of permutations of the digits corresponding to the indices of set bits in the input string and having remainder rem when divided with k.
Code
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I don't understand how the mask work here (I mean how do I get all the permutation)! please describe it a little bit more. And what would be the complexity of this code?
Refer to the comments of these blogs. Link1 Link2
Complexity : 2 N * K * N
Your code is so beautiful and self-explanatory. Thanks!
Isn't the complexity of your code 2^N * N * K * T? Which is almost 2*10^9.
How does it avoid TLE? :o
The complexity of my code is same too. I coded with this logic because I had no option left during a practice contest. I was surprised to see this getting Accepted.
Or am I missing something in this complexity calculation?
is rem * base always valid ie are all the digits of (rem*base) fall into 0 to base-1?