Hey! I have a question. If I have to calculate a pow b modulo mod, with b>mod, is it the same with a pow (b % (mod-1)?
→ Pay attention
→ Top rated
| # | User | Rating |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | tourist | 4009 |
| 2 | jiangly | 3831 |
| 3 | Radewoosh | 3646 |
| 4 | jqdai0815 | 3620 |
| 4 | Benq | 3620 |
| 6 | orzdevinwang | 3529 |
| 7 | ecnerwala | 3446 |
| 8 | Um_nik | 3396 |
| 9 | gamegame | 3386 |
| 10 | ksun48 | 3373 |
→ Top contributors
| # | User | Contrib. |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | cry | 164 |
| 1 | maomao90 | 164 |
| 3 | Um_nik | 163 |
| 4 | atcoder_official | 160 |
| 5 | -is-this-fft- | 158 |
| 6 | awoo | 157 |
| 7 | adamant | 156 |
| 8 | TheScrasse | 154 |
| 8 | nor | 154 |
| 10 | Dominater069 | 153 |
→ Find user
→ Recent actions
History
Codeforces (c) Copyright 2010-2024 Mike Mirzayanov
The only programming contests Web 2.0 platform
Server time: Nov/05/2024 09:55:11 (l2).
Desktop version, switch to mobile version.
Supported by
