physics0523's blog

Codeforces Round #654 (Div. 2) Editorial
By physics0523, history, 4 years ago, In English
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Jury solution: 85699387

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Jury solution: 85699884
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Jury solution: 85699939

UPD: $$$m<\min(a,b)$$$ is wrong, the right text is $$$m\le \min(a,b)$$$

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Jury solution: 85700178
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Jury solution: 85700334
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Jury solution (Solution 1): 85700515

Jury solution (Solution 2): 85700518

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Jury solution: 85700669

Feel free to share your approach here!

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Comments Comments (230)
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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

My first submission for problem A in C++ was

ceil(1.0 * n / 2) and got WA. Does anyone have any idea what is wrong?

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
    ← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it -61 Vote: I do not like it

    Why the downvote? Same is written here

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

      Because here 1.0*n is evaluated first, the result of which is a float value and the divison of this floating value with 2 (integer type) results in a floating value. Hence, there is no precision loss due to divison.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +94 Vote: I do not like it

    You have to use (int)ceil(1.0 * n/2), because large values will be in Scientific floating-point notation

    Try n = 1000000000, it outputs "5e+008"

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +36 Vote: I do not like it

    For some reason, a lot of people use the ceiling and floor function for libraries. There are many ways to mess up when doing this. I personally find it a lot easier to just use the fact that programming languages round down when dividing. Thus, to floor a/b you can do a/b and to ceiling a/b you can do (a+b-1)/b

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it -9 Vote: I do not like it

      Totally true. I used ceil once in Problem A and it didn't get accepted. I was not able to solve A in that contest. Since then I'm never using ceil.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +10 Vote: I do not like it

    At situations like these it's best to do (n + 1)/2

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +10 Vote: I do not like it

    Here's a trick for calculating ceil of (a/b). Just do (a+b-1)/b. No, need to confuse yourself with ceil functions.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    I also got wrong answer same way...you can use (n-1)/2+1 for avoid ceil()..

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

    See the link for better understanding Click here...

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

      int ceil2(int a, int b) { int c=a/b; if(a % b ! =0) c++; return }

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
    ← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it -8 Vote: I do not like it

    One should always point out that that's not the way one spells "Phalange" ;P

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

      Dude, you lost the whole joke.
      The whole point of the name is for fake identity theft. Spelling it right is not actually "right" (P.s if you are not friends fan, drop it)

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +8 Vote: I do not like it

    You can use : double n; cin>>n; cout<<fixed<<setprecision(0)<<ceil(n/2);

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    1
    99999999
    5e+07

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it -44 Vote: I do not like it

I don't like the problems which can be done without using functions or loops

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
    ← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it +58 Vote: I do not like it

    Try adding and subtracting using loops then and wrap these loops inside a function.

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it -73 Vote: I do not like it

Problemsetting might not be the job for you.

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +9 Vote: I do not like it

It shows the message that "You are not allowed to view the requested page" when trying to access the jury solutions.

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it -91 Vote: I do not like it

Pathetic and Confusing problem statement for problem B. Shitty Contest

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +5 Vote: I do not like it

    For problem B I would have to agree the problem statement was pretty confusing, but others were fine.

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

      ya the problem statement confused me too.. after getting the solution it was very easy

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    Yeah I had a hard time understanding how a shape spread in 2 rows in a calendar with x columns can be compared with the same shape spread in 2 rows in a y columns calendar

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4 years ago, # |
← Rev. 3   Vote: I like it +9 Vote: I do not like it

Link for the solution codes are not working right now ... please fix them.

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +9 Vote: I do not like it

Can someone elaborate problem D's editorial?

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +18 Vote: I do not like it

    The idea is to fill out as many diagonals as possible, where each diagonal could wrap around the left/right sides. Filling in a diagonal increases each $$$R_i$$$ and $$$C_j$$$ by one. For a fully complete diagonal, $$$max(R) = min(R)$$$ and $$$max(C) = min(C)$$$, hence $$$f(A)=0$$$ if $$$k \% n = 0$$$. For an incomplete diagonal, you get $$$max(R) = min(R) + 1$$$ and $$$max(C) = min(C) + 1$$$, so $$$f(A)=2$$$.

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

      what does this means "each diagonal could wrap around the left/right sides??

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it +21 Vote: I do not like it

        Wrapping around the left/right sides means that if the diagonal would go off the right side, it would continue on the left side. I think a visual example is the best explanation:

        Step 0:

        00000
00000
00000
00000
00000

        Step 1:

        10000
01000
00100
00010
00001

        Step 2:

        11000
01100
00110
00011
10001

        Step 3:

        11100
01110
00111
10011
11001
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          4 years ago, # ^ |
            Vote: I like it +4 Vote: I do not like it

          Thankyou so much.. got it now

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            4 years ago, # ^ |
            ← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

            i am still now getting...what if k%n is not zero

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          4 years ago, # ^ |
            Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

          Thank you! This was very helpful than the editorial.

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          4 years ago, # ^ |
            Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

          SO much better than the editorial. Thanks :)

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          4 years ago, # ^ |
          ← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

          How did you get that intuition tho? Wrap around diagonals seems a notch above any intuition I got. The closest I got to is filling out the closest diagonal stripe in the grid — 

          111000
111100
111110
011111
001111
000111

          Only later did I realise that it was wrong.

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            4 years ago, # ^ |
              Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

            The diagonals aren't really the important part here, it's just easy to construct that way. These matrices are equivalent:

            1000    0010
0100    1000
0010    0001
0001    0100

            Think of it like filling a chessboard with rooks. If you place the first rook at $$$(r, c)$$$ , then you are left with $$$n-1$$$ rows and $$$n-1$$$ columns open (this is equivalent to 1 row and 1 column with a sum of 1 and $$$n-1$$$ rows and $$$n-1$$$ columns with a sum of 0). Since we're trying to minimize the difference in max/min sums, it's better to place the second rook on an open row and column. This will leave you with $$$n-2$$$ rows and $$$n-2$$$ columns. Keep following this pattern, and you'll end up with $$$n$$$ rooks on the board.

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              4 years ago, # ^ |
                Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

              So after filling in n rooks (as per the finding open column open row method), if k is greater than n, how would the remaining rooks go into the board? Or they could just be filled randomly?

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                4 years ago, # ^ |
                  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

                You would treat the $$$n$$$ spaces that the first rooks take up as unavailable spots, then place the next $$$n$$$ rooks in the same way as the first $$$n$$$ where only 1 new rook per row and 1 new rook per column. The important part is that you don't place 2 on the same row/column when they're part of the same "rook group".

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
    ← Rev. 3   Vote: I like it +7 Vote: I do not like it

    The following is not the way written in the editorial, but I have done it in my solution. Firstly, lets observe that if $$$k$$$ is divisible by $$$n$$$, the answer is $$$0$$$, and when it is not, the answer is $$$2$$$.

    Proof

    Now, how to fit the integers?

    What I did was first insert $$$1$$$s in indexes $$$[1, 1], [2, 2], ...., [n, n]$$$.

    In the next iteration, I inserted $$$1$$$s in indexes $$$[1, 2], [2, 3], ...., [n, 1]$$$

    Like this, we have $$$(k / n)$$$ iterations.

    I had put the extra $$$(k$$$ % $$$n)$$$ 1s simply as if it was the $$$(k / n) + 1$$$ th iteration, and only the first $$$(k$$$ % $$$n)$$$ 1s need to be inserted.

    My submission for reference: 85648287

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

      I didn't understand how you put remaining k%n one's please explain

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

        We put the ones in $$$k / n$$$ iterations, and thus the remaining ones will be $$$k$$$ % $$$n$$$. Note, over here the answer is $$$2$$$. The remaining ones should be lesser than $$$n$$$, because if not, then we could have added another iteration to use the $$$n$$$ ones. As the remaining ones are lesser than $$$n$$$, it means that they are lesser than the number of rows and columns. Thus, we iterate for the first $$$k$$$ % $$$n$$$ rows and columns, in the next iteration, and initialise that point $$$a[row][col]$$$ to $$$1$$$.

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          4 years ago, # ^ |
            Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

          There is no need to do seperately for k/nand k%n we can fill the matrix in only one loop going from [1,k]

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            4 years ago, # ^ |
              Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

            Yes, but don't you think the implementation will go for a toss? I am not telling you that my solution is the best, just telling you from my perspective, I code a solution which is the easiest to implement.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    That formular is wrong, isn't it? $$$f(A)=2(1^2+1^2)$$$

    I implemented AC that as 

        int ans=0;
    if(k%n!=0 && n>1)
        ans=2;
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      4 years ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

      It says f(A)=2. Which is the result of (1^2+1^2). Correct me if I got it wrong.

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

        It says f(A)=4. Which is result of 2*(1^2+1^2)

        Or what is the 2 good for?

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          4 years ago, # ^ |
            Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

          No, he means to say that f(A)=2, which comes from 1^2+1^2, that's why the brackets. The brackets are not indicating multiplication.

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +54 Vote: I do not like it

I think B and C should have been swapped. Thanks for fast editorial though.

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +79 Vote: I do not like it

I think D was little bit similar to 1360G - A/B Matrix and thank you for a nice contest.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +5 Vote: I do not like it

    I actually copied some code from that problem when the answer is 0

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +4 Vote: I do not like it

    That's why i was able to do this problem otherwise it would be hard to come up with such algorithm during contest.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
    ← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    Little bit? Dude for k%n!=0 you just add one for loop and you get AC.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +12 Vote: I do not like it

    Wow man you have such a nice memory XD I think this is the third time I have seen you remembering similar old problems. No offence tho :)

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

pattern in questions!

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +6 Vote: I do not like it

I know it's too much to ask from anyone , but i will be highly obliged and grateful to the one who will look at my submissions of D to see why it fails to pass test cases . My submission link : https://codeforces.net/contest/1371/submission/85694260

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +16 Vote: I do not like it

    testcase
    4 7

    your answer

    5
1100
1100
1010
0001

    correct answer

    2
1100
0110
0011
0001
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      4 years ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it +19 Vote: I do not like it

      Thanks a lot man! i understand now . Have a great luck and wonderful day/night ahead ! :)

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4 years ago, # |
← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it +30 Vote: I do not like it

Could E be solved, under the same constraints, if P was not prime ? I'm curious about it.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
    ← Rev. 7   Vote: I like it -38 Vote: I do not like it

    if $$$p$$$ is not prime, you should replace it with the minimum integer $$$k$$$ such that $$$k!$$$ is a multiple of $$$p$$$
    upd: nvm, it's wrong

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
      ← Rev. 3   Vote: I like it -17 Vote: I do not like it

      reasoning
      the answers are such $$$x$$$ that some $$$P[i]$$$ can be chosen in $$$\geq k$$$ ways
      you can prove that, if this condition is true, for $$$1 \leq y \leq k$$$, some $$$P[i]$$$ can be chosen in $$$y$$$ ways, so $$$f(x)$$$ is a multiple of $$$k!$$$
      upd: nvm, it's wrong

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +77 Vote: I do not like it

Div2 rounds are now tending towards Div3! who else feels same?

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +7 Vote: I do not like it

Question B should have been better explained

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +23 Vote: I do not like it

To be honest, felt like a div3. except the last problem. For others, no. of submissions is almost same as on a div3.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +4 Vote: I do not like it

    You can't just compare no. of submissions in a div3 contest and a div2 contest. In a div2 contest there are more high rated coders than in div3 contest. The expected rank of a 1500 rated coder in Codeforces Round 654 (Div. 2) was 4299, and his rank would be 2894 in the contest Codeforces Round 650 (Div. 3)

    Problem is easy, coders are not very skilled, no of submissions are X. Problems are harder, coders are also better skilled, the problem might get a similar number of submissions.

    I used this website to calculate expected ranks.

    To compare the div3 rounds and div2 rounds, compare their problem difficulties, not no. of submissions.

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +5 Vote: I do not like it

In C's editorial shouldn't it be m<=min(a,b) rather than m<min(a,b)?

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +28 Vote: I do not like it

Why can't someone who knows English go over the problems and correct bad translations? It's so hard to read these problems with so many out of place commas, and completely messy sentences.

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4 years ago, # |
← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it +9 Vote: I do not like it

Editorial Problem E1 You can find the value of f(x) by the following simulation:

First, let v={the number of enemies they have strictly less than x candies}, ans=1. Then do the following steps for i=x,x+1,...,x+(n−1). v=v + {the number of enemies they have exactly i candies} ans=ans∗v v=v−1

Is it just me or was this part not really that intuitive?

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
    ← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

    Yeah,
    I still haven't been able to fully understand the Editorial of E1.
    I understood the statement by seeing some solutions but the reason it works is still a mystery to me

    Found a good explanation https://codeforces.net/blog/entry/79624#comment-654544

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +6 Vote: I do not like it

    for a give n x we are calculating all permutations v = all value less then x we can always put all v values in first place x could always defeat these values and will become x+1 now in second position e can select v -1 as out of v we have already put 1 value at first place but, we can also put those values which are equal to x+1 thats why for x+1 we added v += the num of enemy that has exactly x+1 candies. so we should multiply our ans with this num thatis ans = v*(v-1 + k) where k is num of enemies that have exactly same candies as x+1 and v is numbver of candies less then x, and so on.

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +1 Vote: I do not like it

I did the same thing that's mentioned in the editorial for E1. But I am getting WA for test 5. Submission.

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +1 Vote: I do not like it

Can someone explain C with examples? And what tags do these types of problems come under?

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +4 Vote: I do not like it

    Notice Second Type of guest always consume the one which is small in quantity. So if v > c then only chocolate will be consume by Type 2 guest or if c > v then only vanilla is consume and after consuming either the inequality v > c or c > v which one is there will still hold true. So if min(v, c) >= m then we can always allocate 1 cookie to each type 2 guests.

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it +1 Vote: I do not like it

      Thank you, that helps!

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it +1 Vote: I do not like it

      Oh man...Thanks a lot..! After going through so many comments I was finally able get something related to problem and helpful as well. Thanks again

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +10 Vote: I do not like it

Finally understood B, thanks!

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +13 Vote: I do not like it

At least provide some explanation for problem D. We can see the other's submission if we want to see code.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
    ← Rev. 3   Vote: I like it +28 Vote: I do not like it

    You have to note the pattern. I will explain this by an example.

    For k <= n it is simple : We have to fill only along the diagonal.

    For k > n :

    One thing that is sure : Putting 1 along diagonal is always optimal choice to minimize the final ans.

    Step 1. Fill the diagonal

    Opera-Snapshot_2020-07-02_192810_etc.usf.edu.png

    Step2 .

    Opera-Snapshot_2020-07-02_192810_etc.usf.edu1.png

    Step 3. See the pattern

    Opera-Snapshot_2020-07-02_192810_etc.usf.edu3.png

    Step 4. We will repeat what we have done in step 2, and step 3 till we still some entry to fill.

    Opera-Snapshot_2020-07-02_192810_etc.usf.edu4.png

    Repeating pattern :

    Opera-Snapshot_2020-07-02_192810_etc.usf.edu5.png

    Repeating pattern:

    Opera-Snapshot_2020-07-02_192810_etc.usf.edu6.png

    And finally :

    Opera-Snapshot_2020-07-02_192810_etc.usf.edu7.png

    Trick that I use to print is r-c (or c-r) is constant for a particular diagonal.

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +15 Vote: I do not like it

Any reason for making problem C around the same difficulty as a typical Div2 A?

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +8 Vote: I do not like it

In D there should be either (1^2 + 1^2) or 2 * 1^2, not 2 * (1^2 + 1^2).

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +4 Vote: I do not like it

problem C was fantastic for me.I spended too much time for it.when I finded it's solution I just surprised.

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4 years ago, # |
← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it +5 Vote: I do not like it

First 4 problems felt more like div3 contest only maths and implementation kind. Or may be I am improving.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
    ← Rev. 3   Vote: I like it +9 Vote: I do not like it

    You are improving...

    Spoiler
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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    How can you judge a problem without taking part in actual contest.

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it
      Judging a problem without taking part in contest
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        4 years ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

        solving a problem after the contest is much easier than during the contest. Have a look at problem C, it seemed difficult to most of the people appearing for the contest but after upsolving they found that very easy.

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          4 years ago, # ^ |
            Vote: I like it +10 Vote: I do not like it
          @aryan12 means solving after the contest but with the below constraint
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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +14 Vote: I do not like it

Felt like giving an Aptitude test!

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    Yes, At least for the first 4 problems Never thought pattern recognition and printing will help me solve my firsts Div2 D problem :D

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

https://codeforces.net/blog/entry/79541?#comment-654173 This single comment has a better explanation for A, B, C than this editorial

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +1 Vote: I do not like it

Can Any One Explain me Solution of problem:E1? Because I am still not able to understand it through Editorial. Please Explain if You know .

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    How we can find the value of f(x)???

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
      ← Rev. 4   Vote: I like it +30 Vote: I do not like it

      My reasoning was: Sort $$$a$$$. Fix $$$x$$$ $$$(1 \leq x \leq 2000)$$$. Lets see how many elements we can pick to be $$$P_0$$$ in a valid permutation. Find the last $$$i$$$ such that $$$a_i \leq x$$$. Then we can let $$$P_0 = a_0 \text{ or } a_1 \text{ or } ... \text{ or } a_i$$$. Thus there are $$$i + 1$$$ ways to pick $$$P_0$$$. To pick $$$P_1$$$ we do the same thing, i.e., find the last $$$i$$$ such that $$$a_i \leq x + 1$$$. Then we can let $$$P_1 = a_0 \text{ or } a_1 \text{ or } ... \text{ or } a_i$$$ except that we used one of these elements in choosing $$$P_0$$$. Thus there are $$$i + 1 - 1$$$ ways to pick $$$P_1$$$. Repeat this process for each $$$j < n$$$. If you get to some $$$j$$$ such that the number of ways to pick $$$P_j$$$ is divisible by $$$p$$$, then $$$x$$$ is not valid. Otherwise it is valid. The time complexity is $$$O(\max(a)n\log(n))$$$. This definitely won't pass E2 though.

      Edit: My contest code (disregard the freq array, it is unused): 85694840

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
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        I have done the same thing as you. Can you tell me what is wrong with my code?

        https://codeforces.net/contest/1371/submission/85673827

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          4 years ago, # ^ |
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          probably overflow? You never modded your ans variable, but it can be as big as $$$n!$$$

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            4 years ago, # ^ |
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            Lol you're right...was so close to solving 5 for the first time :(

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
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        Thanks for sharing your approach mate...idk why but was struggling to understand the editorial...I found your approach more insightful. Thanks. Appreciate it! :)

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
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        You can find the minimum x such that f(x) % p != 0, then you can do binary search on your same approach for maximum x. And print from minimum to maximum.

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          4 years ago, # ^ |
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          Yep that's the editorial's first solution for E2. The editorials $$$C_i(x)$$$ function is the number of ways to choose $$$P_i$$$ if the starting amount is $$$x$$$. I implemented it and it works in $$$O(\log(1e9)n\log(n))$$$ (~100ms).

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            4 years ago, # ^ |
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            During solving this question on practice. I just guessed(weak guess) that maybe the answer would be a continuous segment. So, did a binary search. Still, not understanding why it worked?

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              4 years ago, # ^ |
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              Its because of these two simple observations that the editorial states:

              $$$1.$$$ For each $$$x$$$, for each $$$i$$$ $$$(0 \leq i < n - 1)$$$, $$$C_i(x) \geq C_{i + 1}(x) - 1$$$, and $$$C_n(x) \leq 1$$$.

              $$$2.$$$ For each $$$i$$$ ($$$0 \leq i < n$$$), for each $$$x$$$, $$$C_i(x) \leq C_i(x + 1)$$$.

              From $$$(1)$$$, its clear that if $$$C_i(x) \geq p$$$ at some $$$i$$$, then there must be some $$$j \geq i$$$ such that $$$C_j(x) = p$$$.

              Since $$$p$$$ is prime, $$$p \mid f(x)$$$ if and only if $$$p \mid C_i(x)$$$ for some $$$i$$$ $$$(0 \leq i < n)$$$. I think this is called Euclid's Lemma.

              Thus from $$$(2)$$$ it is clear that $$$f(x) > 0$$$ and $$$p \mid f(x) \implies f(x + 1) > 0$$$ and $$$p \mid f(x + 1)$$$. Therefore there will be a smallest value $$$mn$$$ such that $$$f(mn) > 0$$$, and there will be a smallest value $$$mx \geq mn$$$ such that $$$f(mx) > 0$$$ and $$$p \mid mx$$$ and each $$$x \geq mx$$$ is not good. Thus binary search works. The answer is just the range $$$[mn, mx)$$$.

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                4 years ago, # ^ |
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                I can`t understand the first condition.

                suppose x = 3 and i be 2, then power at i=2 will be 5, so C(i,x) will give how many values are there less than or equal to 5, suppose this value is 10, out of this 2 have already been used at index 0 and 1 so value should be 8.

                Now at i+1 we will have value 6 and then we will ask how many values are there less than or equal to 6, this will incude all the values less than or equal to 5 and the values equal to 6, let it be 15 (10+5(freq. of 6)), as now 3 value have been used value value here will be 12

                so we have C(i,x) = 8 and C(i+1,x) = 12, then how is the above condition satisfied ?

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
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        Thanks a lot, for some reason I wasn't able to understand this via the official editorial. You saved me from a headache :P

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
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        Ha, thank you! Good explanation.

        I'm trying to understand the editorial implementation now. But I can't figure out what the bk array means. Can someone give me an intuition?

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4 years ago, # |
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Can someone please help me with this submission for E1. It gets WA on test 9.

EDIT : I found the mistake. I was using set data structure earlier to get the count of elements less than or equal to $$$x+i$$$ which is wrong as it only stores unique elements and thus might give me wrong count values in case of duplicates.

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4 years ago, # |
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.

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4 years ago, # |
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how can one arrive to the approach used in problem D. I mean is it really too intuitive? If yes, then can anyone share similar problems for practice.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    My idea was to flatten the board into a line of length $$$n^2$$$ and spread the ones "evenly" across the grid. That is, put a one at positions $$$0 \bmod n^2, (n + 1) \bmod n^2, 2(n + 1) \bmod n^2, ..., (k - 1)(n + 1) \bmod n^2$$$. Then you can easily convert the linear position to an $$$(r, c)$$$ coordinate by the formula $$$coord(x) = (x / n, x \bmod n)$$$. I didn't prove it rigorously, but it got AC: 85675022

    I believe a similar technique can be used to solve this problem: https://codeforces.net/problemset/problem/1360/G

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
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      Thank you gentleman for this brilliant approach, now I am wondering how to prove and why this works. If possible can you please elaborate? Thanks a lot.

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
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        One. No square will be hit twice using this method, and all $$$n^2$$$ squares can be hit if needed (i.e. when $$$k = n^2$$$).

        Proof: Since $$$\gcd(n + 1, n^2) = 1$$$ (easy to show, I hope you can figure it out), the method will hit exactly $$$\frac{n^2}{gcd(n + 1, n^2)} = n^2$$$ before returning to its initial position (0), so the claim holds. This formula follows from a theorem of group theory which states that for any positive integer $$$k$$$, for each $$$x \in \mathbb{Z}_k$$$, the smallest integer $$$d$$$ such that $$$d \cdot x \equiv 0 \pmod{k}$$$ is $$$d = \frac{n}{\gcd(x, n)}$$$. An equivalent way to say it is $$$d$$$ is equal to the number of distinct elements in $$$\mathbb{Z}_k$$$ you get by repeatedly adding $$$x$$$ to itself modulo $$$k$$$. This theorem appears surprisingly frequently on Code Forces for some reason (probably due to its relation to cycles and permutations).

        Two. I'm still not sure how to rigorously prove that this method minimizes $$$f(A)$$$ ... Im guessing it has to do with the fact that also $$$\gcd(n + 1, n) = 1$$$.

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4 years ago, # |
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Shouldn't it be $$$m \le min(a,b)$$$ for problem $$$C$$$?

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4 years ago, # |
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In E2 for solution 1 :

"if C_i(x) exceeds p, then there will be some C_j(x) = p as C_i(x) decrements by at most 1".

Why is this necessary that some C_j(x) will be equal to p?

what if C_i(x) does not decrease but only increase? Can someone explain?

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    It has to decrease towards the end. If there was no constraints on choices at each turn and you had 5 options you end up with 5*4*3*2*1 choices. The constraints can never increase the number of choices for any turn but can reduce them so any 'good' x will ensure that you never have p or more choices on any turn.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    Cn(x) has to be one bcoz total n choices. So,if some c_i > p and each c_j can atmost decrease by one then p+a....p.....1

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4 years ago, # |
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The problems were wonderful. I loved them all.

However Ruby 2.7.1 (which was upgraded from 2.0.0 recently) is too slow on Codeforces. My O(1) (I mean, O(t)) solutions don't pass! https://codeforces.net/contest/1371/submission/85638755 Same code with same input passes in 150ms on Macbook Air and 75ms on AtCoder!

It seems that any Ruby2.7.1 submission takes 900ms at least. (Even if 1 line do-nothing code) So I guess Ruby2.7.1 on Codeforces has somewhat wrong settings.

And I found that previously passed code makes TLE now with Ruby2.7.1.

Please let me know if any better place to report bugs to Codeforces. Thanks!

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4 years ago, # |
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Shouldn't it be m <= min(a,b) in place of m < min(a,b) as written in the editorial

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4 years ago, # |
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For all those who want to understand how the solution for D is working, have a look at the comments of my code.

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4 years ago, # |
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I can't understand the solution of C except the base condition n + m <= a + b. And how to think solution of this kind of problem, I tried different types of conditions but couldn't unite them.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    Second type guests always choose fewer remaining type of cookies out of 2 types of cookies, so after they choose, the fewer number of remaining cookie is always reduced by 1. First type guests will not get angry if at least 1 cookie left, so the best thing to do is to put them on the back burner.

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4 years ago, # |
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The contest was mostly logic based for question A to E1 and not much related to algorithms and data structures.

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4 years ago, # |
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In problem E2 (Asterism), after we have calculated b_i, how are we able to find all the "good" x's in linear time?

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4 years ago, # |
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Your algorithm for comprehending D is funny, Mr physics0523 ;P

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4 years ago, # |
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For the whole round, I thought that in problem B, we have to count only one pattern for the row that completely divides the total number of days.The problem statement could have been written more clear.

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4 years ago, # |
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still can't solve C :( if we call type 1 guest before type 2 guest then it won't decrease min(a,b) right? but in editorial

if there is a type 1 guest before a type 2 guest, the type 1 guest have a possibility to decrease the value of min(a,b) unnecessarily

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    If a = b and we call two guests of type 1, they will decrease the minimum of a and b.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    Yes,this statement is conflicting. You can understand it by realising that at any moment,type 1 guest tries to eat the cookie which is more in number and type 2 tries to eat cookie which is less in number.If number of cookies are same the type 1 eats chocolate cookie and type 2 eats vanilla.

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
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      got it, tysm! we invite type 2 guests first because they take minimum of vanilla and choclate and in the end we invite type 1 guests and check if we have required remaining dishes.

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4 years ago, # |
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I'm not sure whether this was mentioned before, but there is a DP solution to E1 which generalizes to E2. I am going to present a handwavy explanation of it:

85709850 Here, dp[i] denotes the number of valid permutations of the i smallest elements. From there, we want to insert a new element in these permutations, which does not make any of the existing duels worse, as our candies are monotonically increasing, so we just find the number of positions, where we can put the new element. If we had x candies at start and our new duel is the k-th one, then we will have x + k — 1 candies, so this must be at least the new amount of candies.

Now moving on to E2:85708674

Knowing the recursion from the dp, we can now see that if we have too few candies to win a duel, f(x) is 0, and if we have at least as many candies at start than the p-th smallest enemy, we will also have trouble, because that multiplies our dp by p. So we can find the min and max candies easily, and now we just want to quickly decide whether any of our other products are zero. The parts in the dp product before the p-th smallest element cannot be divisible by p, as they are positive but smaller than p, so we just take the elements from the p-th to the n-th and see whether they give a zero residue with p, granted that we have less candies than them when starting the fights (this follows from the enemies being sorted and us having at less candies than the p-th smallest enemy). This can also be done linearly.

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4 years ago, # |
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E1, "Yuzu should have at least $$$m-n+1$$$ candies initially to win all duels."

Isn't that wrong? Having that much candis garanties that not all duels get lost, but to garantie to win all duels Yuzu must have $$$m$$$ candies. Since all a[i] can be equal $$$m$$$.

I mean, a[] is not a permutation or somehow else pairwise distinct.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    bro see my solution for that problem it is easy to understand.

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
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      I did not solve it because I was not able to come up with formular to calculate f(x) for any fixed x. And, honestly, I am still not sure about that after reading the editorial.

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
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        :D hmm editorial is not good this time

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
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        Agreed, they did not explain the solutions well, they just wrote the pseudo-code for the problem.

        Btw, I solved E1 in contest with basic principle of counting, for a fixed x, I counted no. of ways to fill 1st place * no. of ways to fill 2nd place and so on up to n places. My submission 85691626

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    If you have $$$m$$$ candies, you can definitely win all duels. What the author meant is this:

    Let $$$x$$$ be the smallest number of candies you need to guarantee a win, then $$$x$$$ $$$\geq$$$ $$$m - n +1$$$. Had it been less than that, you'll have maximum $$$m-n+n-1$$$ candies against an enemy with $$$m$$$ candies.

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
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      Ok, what he meant is "Yuzu should have at least $$$m-n+1$$$ candies initially to not loose all duels."

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
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        Having m — n + 1 candies obviously does not guarantee winning all duels. eg — 5 5 5. Maybe, he meant that if we have candies less than this, then we are definitely going to lose.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    Hi! By at least it means that any x below this and we're certain that f(x) = 0, so we don't need to check below that. It's not actually necessary to do this if formula for finding f(x) handles all cases tho.

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4 years ago, # |
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In tutorial of C it should be m <= min(a,b) instead of m < min(a,b) for answer to be "Yes".

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4 years ago, # |
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The test cases for E1 were such that I got a TLE when I solved in O(n*n*logn). Till today I thought log(n) does not make a difference. Got to learn something from the question.

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4 years ago, # |
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Why am I getting WA on test case 6 of E1: 85714673

UPD: Fixed it

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4 years ago, # |
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Can anyone please tell me what is wrong with my code for E1?

https://codeforces.net/contest/1371/submission/85673827

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4 years ago, # |
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#include<bits/stdc++.h>
 
int main() {
	using namespace std;
	ios_base::sync_with_stdio(false), cin.tie(nullptr);
	int T; cin >> T;
	while (T--) {
		int N, K; cin >> N >> K;
		cout << (K % N == 0 ? 0 : 2) << '\n';
		for (int i = 0; i < N; i++) {
			for (int j = 0; j < N; j++) {
				int d = (j - i + N) % N;
				if (d * N + i < K) {
					cout << '1';
				} else {
					cout << '0';
				}
			}
			cout << '\n';
		}
	}
 
	return 0;
}

This is ecnerwala's solution for Problem D, can somebody help me in understanding how this solution works and what was the intuition behind that :)

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    It's the same diagonal construction as the editorial, but computed in a different order. For each cell, we compute which diagonal it's on and use that to decide whether it should be set or not.

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4 years ago, # |
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This editorial is so hard it needs another editorial. Seriously, it was easier for me to solve problems than to understand this, not even saying anything about jury code quality. Some standards for writing editorials are needed.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    I think it should be forbidden to have editorials in the form of pseudocode or formal algorithm description. I read editorials to understand how to arrive to the solution. If I want a formal description, I can just open anyone's submission

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
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      Pseudocode might be fine, if it is easier to read than actual code. The actual solution must be present anyways. What you might need is a system of "tips", that describe a way of thinking that could lead you to the solution.

      Unfortunately, most of the time this is not the case and we see "just do this" or "we can prove that this works" types of arguments. Even just checking that a thing works might be of little value for me, because during contests you are not checking solutions, you need to come up with one.

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4 years ago, # |
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binary search solution of E2

Spoiler
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4 years ago, # |
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Hello, can anyone tell me how long we have to wait to see the change in our rating, system checking is done hours ago

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4 years ago, # |
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If you prefer video explainations, I go over everything (except a rather handwavey description of E2) at the end of my screencast of the round.

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4 years ago, # |
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Can anyone please explain how this solution works for 1371E2 - Asterism (Hard Version). Thanks in advance.

        int n, p, a[n];
        cin >> n >> p;
        for (int i = 0; i < n; i++)
            cin >> a[i];
        sort(a, a + n);
        int l = 0, r = 1e9;

        for (int i = 0; i < n; i++)
            l = max(l, a[i] - i);
        for (int i = p - 1; i < n; i++)
            r = min(r, a[i] - i + p - 1); // need help with this part

        cout << max(0, r - l) << endl;
        for (int i = l; i < r; i++)
            cout << i << " ";
        cout << endl;
Taken from
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    4 years ago, # ^ |
    ← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it +8 Vote: I do not like it

    I have a proof that the solution must be a contiguous sequence of numbers here: https://codeforces.net/blog/entry/79624?#comment-654797

    He found the min and max numbers of the subarray, then printed every number in between.

    It seems that while I used binary search to find the maximum bound of the subarray, he found a cleverer way just using a for loop.

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4 years ago, # |
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I have an interesting solution for E2 using binary search.

It relies on the fact that the answer will always be a contiguous sequence of numbers. I have a proof of that fact below.

85713453 (find minimum value in easy O(N), binary search to find the max value that works, print every number in between).

Proof:

  • Claim: f(x) can be written as some factorial, lets call it X!, multiplied by some mumbers <=X.
  • You can see that this is true when you calculate $$$p_i$$$, the number of possible numbers to go in the $$$i$$$th spot, after you've determined the first $$$p_0$$$ to $$$p_{i-1}$$$. f(x) equals $$$p_0 \cdot p_1 \cdot \ldots \cdot p_{n-2} \cdot p_{n-1}$$$. $$$p_i$$$ is calclated by (the number of numbers in the array <= x+i) — i. $$$i$$$ increases by $$$1$$$ each iteration, and because that is the only way for $$$p_i$$$ to decrease, is impossible to decrease by more than $$$1$$$. There is $$$1$$$ possible number that can go in the last position because only $$$1$$$ number is left, so the $$$p_{n-1}$$$ must equal $$$1$$$.
  • Thus, say you found the position with the maximum number of possibilities had $$$X$$$ possibilities, f(x) = X! * {some numbers <= X} because all numbers between $$$1$$$ and $$$X$$$ inclusive must be represented in $$$p_0$$$ to $$$p_{n-1}$$$.
  • This is important because you can say that $$$f(x)$$$ is divisible by all primes $$$<= X$$$ and not divisible by any primes $$$> X$$$, where $$$X$$$ is the number of possibilities of the index with the most possibilities.
  • You can also show that the $$$X_a \le X_b$$$ for all $$$a < b$$$. This is because having a greater value of x in f(x) will never result in less possibilities for any position.
  • Thus, for all $$$f(a)$$$ and $$$f(b)$$$, where $$$a < b$$$, if $$$f(a)$$$ is divisible by $$$p$$$, then $$$f(b)$$$ must also be divisible by $$$p$$$. $$$X_a$$$ is $$$> p$$$, and since $$$X_b \ge X_a$$$, $$$X_b > p$$$ as well.
  • Starting from the minimum working $$$x$$$ (before of which $$$f(x)$$$ is all $$$0$$$), no value of $$$x$$$ after the first non-working $$$x$$$ can work, so the answer must be in the form of a continguous sequence of numbers.
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    4 years ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +4 Vote: I do not like it

    I also came up with a similar idea when upsolving, code with brief comments: 85718984

    The upperbound is the largest number that never has $$$\geq p$$$ options, and every greater number will surely hit $$$p$$$ options "on the way back down" as they run out of options

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    Thanks. That really helped.

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +32 Vote: I do not like it

My solution and explanation for 1371E2 - Asterism (Hard Version)

The number of permutations for a given $$$x$$$ can be written in:

$$$f(x)=\Pi_{i=0}^{n-1} ((\sum_{j=0}^{n-1}a_j\leq x+i)-i)$$$

Since $p$ is a prime number, in order that $$$f(x)$$$ cannot be divided by $$$p$$$, we must ensure that $$$(\sum_{j=0}^{n-1}a_j\leq x+i)-i<p$$$ holds for every $$$i$$$. And in order that there is a possible permutation, we must ensure that $$$(\sum_{j=0}^{n-1}a_j\leq x+i)-i\geq1$$$ holds for every $$$i$$$.

Proof: Let's denote $$$(\sum_{j=0}^{n-1}a_j\leq x+i)-i$$$ as $$$g(i)$$$. We can find that, since $$$\sum_{j=0}^{n-1}a_j\leq x+i$$$ never decreases, so if $$$g(i)$$$ decreases, it can decrease at most $$$1$$$. Another observation is that $$$g(n-1)=1$$$. So if there is $$$i_1$$$ such that $$$g(i_1)>p$$$, there must be $$$i_2>i_1$$$ which satisfies $$$g(i_2)=p$$$, which makes $$$f(x)$$$ divided by $$$p$$$.

So the problem is now: how many $$$x$$$ are there that satisfy

$$$\forall i, 1\leq g(i)<p$$$

Since $g(i)$ increases with x, the answer must be a continuous segment $$$[lo..hi]$$$.

Now we sort the array $$$a$$$ in the ascending order.

For $$$lo$$$, we have

$$$\forall i, lo+i\geq a_i\implies lo\leq\max(a_i-i)$$$

For $$$hi$$$, we have

$$$\forall i, hi+i<a_{i+p-1}\implies hi<\min(a_{i+p-1}-i)$$$

So the final answer is the segment

$$$[\max(a_i-i)..\min(a_{i+p-1}-i)-1]$$$

Code: 85684812

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    I can't understand the last two steps of your solution.Why Why does this formula work ? ∀i,hi+i<ai+p−1⟹hi<min(ai+p−1−i)

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      4 years ago, # ^ |
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      $$$\forall i, hi+i<a_{i+p-1}\implies\forall i,hi<a_{i+p-1}-i\implies hi<\min(a_{i+p-1}-i)$$$

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        4 years ago, # ^ |
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        I get it! Let cnt[x] be the amount of number which is equal or less than x,then we have ∀i,0<=i<n => cnt[x+i]-i<p => cnt[x+i]<p+i => x+i<a[p+i-1] => x<a[p+i-1]-i => x<min(a[p+i-1]-i). Thanks for your solution!

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          4 years ago, # ^ |
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          anodiebird How did you come up with, x+i<a[p+i-1], steps before this one are clear. Can you please elucidate this one?

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            4 years ago, # ^ |
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            ⑴ x+i<a[p+i-1] => x<a[p+i-1]-i ⑵ a+b<c => a<c-b If you look at these two equations，you will see both of them are the same form,in the first equation I just change the position of i,in the second equation I just change the position of b.

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              4 years ago, # ^ |
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              anodiebird My doubt is that how did you transition from cnt[x+i]<p+i to x+i<a[p+i-1]

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                4 years ago, # ^ |
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                Because we have sorted the elements of a[].If index i begins from 0,then we can see cnt[a[i-1]]=i,and you can deduce that p+i=cnt[a[p+i-1]].So let's substitute that into our expression:cnt[x+i]<cnt[a[p+i-1]] => x+i<a[p+i-1] => x<a[p+i-1]-i

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4 years ago, # |
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If author's approach for problem F is unclear, then you may check my solution. 85721976 Imho problem F is the only problem that I've found interesting in this contest.

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +14 Vote: I do not like it

It is probably because it's his/her first contest but the editorial solutions to D and E1 are the worst. There is no reasoning/intuition given whatsoever. Please take it as constructive criticism.

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4 years ago, # |
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My solution for problem F : 85724126

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4 years ago, # |
← Rev. 3   Vote: I like it +29 Vote: I do not like it

My solution to 1371F - Raging Thunder

Helping information

Obviously, this is a segment-tree problem. Then what do we need to maintain in each node?

In my implementation, the following information is maintained:

  • $$$ll$$$, the length of the prefix "<<<"
  • $$$lr$$$, the length of the prefix ">>>"
  • $$$rl$$$, the length of the suffix "<<<"
  • $$$rr$$$, the length of the suffix ">>>"
  • $$$lhi$$$, the length of the prefix ">>><<<" (at least 1 "<" and 1 ">")
  • $$$rhi$$$, the length of the suffix ">>><<<" (at least 1 "<" and 1 ">")
  • $$$hi$$$, the length of the longest ">>><<<" (at least 1 "<" and 1 ">")
  • $$$nlhi$$$, the length of the prefix "<<<>>>" (at least 1 "<" and 1 ">")
  • $$$nrhi$$$, the length of the suffix "<<<>>>" (at least 1 "<" and 1 ">")
  • $$$nhi$$$, the length of the longest "<<<>>>" (at least 1 "<" and 1 ">")
  • $$$mark$$$, whether the children of the current node should be flipped. It is also used as the flag for lazy propagation.

Then the answer to the query within a node becomes $$$\max(hi, ll, rr)$$$.

With such information, node combination and node flipping becomes easier and clearer.

Node flipping

  • Flip $$$mark$$$.
  • Swap $$$ll$$$ and $$$lr$$$, $$$rl$$$ and $$$rr$$$.
  • Swap $$$lhi$$$ and $$$nlhi$$$, $$$rhi$$$ and $$$nrhi$$$, $$$hi$$$ and $$$nhi$$$.

Node combination

  • New $$$ll$$$ is $$$l.ll$$$ if $$$l.ll < l.len$$$, otherwise $$$l.ll + r.ll$$$. It is similar for $$$lr$$$, $$$rl$$$ and $$$rr$$$.
  • New $$$lhi$$$:
    • If $$$0<l.lhi<l.len$$$, just use $$$l.lhi$$$
    • If $$$l.lhi=l.len$$$, use $$$l.lhi+r.ll$$$
    • If $$$l.lhi=0$$$ and $$$l.lr=l.len$$$ and $$$\max(r.lhi, r.ll) > 0$$$, use $$$l.lr+\max(r.lhi, r.ll)$$$
    • It is similar for $$$rhi$$$, $$$nlhi$$$ and $$$nrhi$$$
  • New $$$hi$$$ is the maximum of the following:

    • Unable to parse markup [type=CF_MATHJAX]

    • $$$\max(l.rhi+r.ll(\mathrm{if}\ l.rhi > 0), l.rr+r.ll(\mathrm{if}\ l.rr > 0, r.ll > 0), l.rr+r.lhi(\mathrm{if}\ r.lhi > 0))$$$
    • $$$\max(l.hi, r.hi)$$$
  • New $$$nhi$$$ can be calculated similarly.

My code

85729867

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4 years ago, # |
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why i am getting run time error, i am unable to find that?

include<bits/stdc++.h>

using namespace std; int main() { int t; cin>>t; while(t--){ int n,k; cin>>n>>k; int res[n][n]; memset(res,0,sizeof(res)); if(k%n){ cout<<"2"<<endl; } else{ cout<<"0"<<endl; } int p=0; int q=0; for(int i=0;i<k;i++){

res[p+1][q+1]=1;
        p=p+1;
        q=(q+1)%n;
        if(p==n){
            p=0;q=(q+1)%n;
        }
    }
   for(int i=0;i<n;i++){
       for(int j=0;j<n;j++){
           cout<<res[i][j]<<" ";
       }
       cout<<endl;
   }
}
return 0;

}

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4 years ago, # |
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What obfuscation software was used for the jury solutions? It is certainly very effective.

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4 years ago, # |
← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

.

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4 years ago, # |
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Can someone please provide a rigorous proof for Problem C as to why the order of guests where first all type 2 guests come and then type 1 guests come, is the most efficient ? I could not understand the explanation in the editorial.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    I don't have a rigorous proof but you can think in this manner that guests of type one can always adjust to any kind of case whether only vanilla,chocolate or both (provided the number of guests of type ones is less than equal to the total number of cookies) so our number of type of cookies is independent of guests of type one.

    It's not so for the guests of type two since they always choose the lesser type of cookies so if you feed the guests of type one before guests of type two it's going to be less optimal.(more chances of failure of satisfying the condition. Our problem asked to print yes even if a single situation could allow all guests to finish them off so always looking for most optimal way)

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it -14 Vote: I do not like it

Check out the video editorials:

E1. Asterism

D. Grid-00100

C. A cookie for you

B. Magical Calendar

A. Magical Sticks

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4 years ago, # |
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During the contest, I misread the question B as the total number of shapes of length n one can get if for any block, there is at least one block that shares one side with that block, thereby removing the problem constraint of n consecutive days. I still haven't been able to come up with any solution! Could anyone help with that?

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4 years ago, # |
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UPD: Got it

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4 years ago, # |
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What is wrong in my code for Asterism(Hard version) problem, I mean I am getting WA on test case 11, can someone help in finding the wrong logic that I am using in my code https://ideone.com/iUJnps

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4 years ago, # |
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Are the ai values in E1 and E2 distinct or can some of them be the same?

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4 years ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +6 Vote: I do not like it

No idea if this is mentioned before but I think there is a much cuter solution for F.

Notice that the balls are seperated by <> only. We only need to store leftmost, rightmost and longest distance between <> in a range. For the reverse it is just ><.

code: 85723638

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    Thanks! I was able to solve this problem with your idea.

    By the way, I noticed that you use a MAX/MIN template for multiple elements. You don't actually need that since the following is valid in C++

    x = max({a,b,c,d....}) (We just need to use {} for multiple elements)

    Or is there some other benefit that I don't know of?

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4 years ago, # |
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I am a newbie Can someone explain me ( in problem D ) Why is this line included in the Jury solution ** arr[i][n]=0;** Thanks in advance

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4 years ago, # |
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Here is my approach and explanation for E1[problem:1371E1]

As Yuzu starts with x candies, we know the number of candies in each position of the array, i.e, x+1,x+2.....,x+n. This means at ith position with i starting from 0, the number of candies at that position must be strictly less than x+i+1.

Sort the array and iterate from the back. Let m1 be the maximum number. Now, how many positions can m1 occupy? It is x+n-m1 as m1 can only occupy positions having candies greater than m1.

Now, let m2 be the next(second maximum) number. It can occupy positions x+n-m2-1. We subtract 1 as one of the positons is already occupied by the maximum number. Similarly, for m3 it will be x+n-m3-2 and so on.

So, for ith number(array[i]), the positions it can occupy is x+n-array[i]-(n-i-1). If the number is less than x, then we have to subtract x-array[i] as the number of candies cannot be less than x, hence the number of positions it occupies will be x+n-array[i]-(n-i-1)-(x-array[i]).

On simplification, the number of positions for array[i]>=x is x-array[i]+i+1 and for array[i]<x is i+1. or simply min(x,array[i])+i+1-array[i].

Now f(x) is simply product the positions the numbers can occupy. 85781407

If someone has a simpler explanation for this approach, please let me know

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4 years ago, # |
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for problem 1371E1 — Asterism (Easy Version), i am doing same as stated in editorial, but still getting TLE. Is it because i am using Python 3 ? here is my solution Please help.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    I guess no, there are many Python3 accepted solutions if you see the rank list

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4 years ago, # |
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Why the statement on the tutorial of 1371E2 that once f(x) is divided by p,then f(x+a) is divided by p too is right?

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4 years ago, # |
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Alternative approaches to ceil() is a blog post about the discussion on Problem A. I hope you find this useful.

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4 years ago, # |
← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

https://codeforces.net/contest/1371/submission/85805079

https://codeforces.net/contest/1371/submission/85805620

The test case 2 is failing in both the solutions because the "jury" is changing it's answer in the second answer. In the first approach, it says that the answer for testcase 14 is 4 but in the second solution, it says that the answer is 0.

Why is this happening?

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4 years ago, # |
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In problem E(hard version),I'd like to ask the conclusion "It's easy to see, that there should be max(ai)−n≤x≤max(ai) to have f(x)≠0 and f(x)≠n! (they are both divisible by p)." mentioned by the author. How to deduce it? While in Solution 1, though the author doesn't mention it, he uses this trick in bucket sort. So I am eager to know about it.

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    Because when $$$x$$$ is too low you can't beat anyone, so there are no possible permutations. Same for high $$$x$$$, when you can beat anyone, so every permutation is good.

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4 years ago, # |
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In problem E, i think , lower limit value of x where f(x)!=0 should be max(a[i])-n+1 and not max(a[i])-n and upper limit value of x where f(x)!=n! should be max(a[i])-1 and not max(a[i]). Is it so??

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    4 years ago, # ^ |
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    Yeah, maybe it's just for convenience.

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4 years ago, # |
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Any advice for implementing with E2 binary search?

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4 years ago, # |
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Anyone please help me why i am getting wrong answer on test case 9 for problem E1. Thanks in advance. https://codeforces.net/contest/1371/submission/85904339

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4 years ago, # |
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Why i get wrong answer on test 3 ? https://codeforces.net/contest/1371/submission/85927710

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4 years ago, # |
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WOW, I'm stunned when reading through the author's code for problem F.

Compare to my code, It's too complicated

Here is my submission: 86278384

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4 years ago, # |
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There's something wrong with C's tutorial... $$$ m < min(a, b) $$$ should be $$$ m \leq min(a, b) $$$

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3 years ago, # |
← Rev. 2   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it 
**my implementation for D is to fill the first (k+n-1)/n element in the first row with 1 and use shuffling to fill the remaining rows..at the end we make cnt=(n-(k%n))%n**
**and when we meet x==y and cnt>0 we make it equal 0 and cnt--,** 

https://codeforces.net/contest/1371/submission/157369182

``

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2 years ago, # |
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https://codeforces.net/contest/1371/submission/161919436 why my code is failing for test case 9, pls anyone help!!! my approach is that for each start value from 0 to max_element of array I find out the permutations by doing (x)*(y-1)*(z-2).....*(q-(n-1)) where x : no. of elements less than than first element in array, and same goes for others.

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6 months ago, # |
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in problem C instead of m < min(a, b) we must write m <= min(a, b) for example 2 2 1 2 with your solve answer will no, but real answer is yes

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