MateoCV's blog

By MateoCV, 21 month(s) ago, In English

Thanks for participating in the round! I hope you enjoyed the problems!

1794A - Prefix and Suffix Array

Solution
Code
Feedback

1794B - Not Dividing

Solution
Code
Additional comment
Feedback

1794C - Scoring Subsequences

Solution
Code
Feedback

1794D - Counting Factorizations

Solution
Code
Additional comment
Feedback

1794E - Labeling the Tree with Distances

Solution
Code
Feedback
  • Vote: I like it
  • +212
  • Vote: I do not like it

| Write comment?
»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +41 Vote: I do not like it

E was doable :/

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
Rev. 2   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

Why don't we need to check if the remaining distance is not too far away in problem E? (nvm got it)

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    Please share the explanation

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

      It could only be wrong in case of a collision, which gives a probability of at most $$$\dfrac{N}{MOD}$$$ of it being wrong for a single vertex, using two hashes solves this.

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +2 Vote: I do not like it
»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +27 Vote: I do not like it

C can be done in O(N) using two pointers.

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    The two-pointers technique is an easier and more intuitive solution.

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it +5 Vote: I do not like it

      You could actually just use greedy for C using a pq. Add the new element at each prefix and while the lowest element in the given series is less than the size of the array, you will remove it. 196022463. Very easy implementation.

      • »
        »
        »
        »
        21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it +14 Vote: I do not like it

        Even simpler solution using queue: 196042147

      • »
        »
        »
        »
        21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it +7 Vote: I do not like it

        This is literally the same solution as the two pointers (and it works for exactly the same reasons).

        But as the array is sorted you don't need the priority queue.

        • »
          »
          »
          »
          »
          21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
            Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

          Oh, I didn’t even realize the array was sorted lul.

      • »
        »
        »
        »
        7 months ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

        Priority queue was my initial idea, but it didn't come to me that i should insert and delete elements at the same time.

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    can someone explain in problem B why can't we iterate from right to left basically how addition form left to right is making sure correct answer and not right to left

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Rev. 3   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

      Because the constraint is from left to right

      Let me explain, draw the elements of the array from left to right in increasing order of the indices. For each i, add a directed edge from the i-th element to the (i+1)-th element. As you can see, the value of the i-th element is constraining the value of the (i+1)-th element to be not divisible.

      If you wanted to fix the issues by starting from right, then it would change a[i+1] for it not to be divisible by a[i] but then when you change a[i] for it not to be divisible by a[i-1], the fact that the value of a[i] changed might make a[i+1] divisible by a[i].

      While if you do it from left to right, the changes you do on the (i+1)-th value will not affect the values from 0 to i

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    Amazing to see so many solutions for C!

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +5 Vote: I do not like it

Nice Contest

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +9 Vote: I do not like it

As always good contest and good quality questions.

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

Great problems (even though I did pretty bad)

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
Rev. 3   Vote: I like it +1 Vote: I do not like it

O(N) solution for div2 C. Basically if a[i] = j, then for all k from i to i+a[i]-1, this index i will be the "bottleneck" i.e. our max length score will be k-i+1. We can iterate on i and maintain 2 pointers to avoid overlaps.

196049334

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +32 Vote: I do not like it

Somehow I always assumed that hashing based solutions will never work on codeforces, now feeling stupid :/

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +5 Vote: I do not like it

    You can always choose the modulo randomly to defend against hacks

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it +14 Vote: I do not like it

      Just use two hashes

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

      composite modulo can be a problem if you have to do modular inverse, and I don't know an easy way of choosing a random prime

      • »
        »
        »
        »
        21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it
        • »
          »
          »
          »
          »
          21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
            Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

          We can tweak Errichto algorithm in the above comment to generate a uniformly random prime.

          Just choose a random no in range and check if it's prime. If it isn't, keep choosing another random no in the range.

          A range of length N has $$$N/logN$$$ primes so that this algorithm will end after $$$O(logN)$$$ iterations, and this will be a uniformly generated prime no.

          • »
            »
            »
            »
            »
            »
            21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
              Vote: I like it +24 Vote: I do not like it

            I agree.

            Disclaimer though: after generating a random prime, the computations modulo that prime are very slow. Do it only in CF, where you can be hacked. Otherwise, using a constant modulo is faster.

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

      Instead of choosing the modulo randomly, you could also choose the base as a random integer from the interval $$$[0, MOD-1]$$$, which is what they do in the editorial.

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +44 Vote: I do not like it

This round needs an extra problem F.

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +15 Vote: I do not like it

    Less than 20 people in Div 2 solved E, less than 10 people in Div 2 solved E with 10+ minutes left.

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

      I won't say that this isn't a good round or the last problem isn't interesting, but for most Div.2 rounds these numbers would be 1 or 0.

      • »
        »
        »
        »
        21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it +43 Vote: I do not like it

        A problem F that is usually solved by 1 or 0 people in Div 2 satisfies the desire of unofficial participants from Div 1 but will be ignored by most Div 2 participants during the contest, as if it never existed. Maybe I will have a different view/desire once become more advanced, but currently feel such F will add more stress and intimidation, at least during the contest.

      • »
        »
        »
        »
        20 months ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it
»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

Thanks for the strong tests. I got lots of WA and had a chance to fix them.

Yet another DP problem that I can't solve within the contest time. :(

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
Rev. 2   Vote: I like it +91 Vote: I do not like it

I solved E by adding heuristics until I got AC. I challenge anyone to hack my solution: 196038364.

Here is what my solution does:

For each node

  1. Find the value that must be added to the array (by calculating the sum of distances from each node — the sum of the values in the array). Make sure that distance is $$$[0, n-1]$$$. Add that missing element.
  2. Check if the number of nodes with distance $$$0$$$, $$$1$$$, and $$$2$$$ are correct.
  3. Check if the maximum value in the array is equal to the maximum distance from the node to any other node (can be done by just checking the endpoints of the diameter of the tree).

If at the end, there are $$$\leq 200$$$ candidates, check all of them individually. Otherwise, check any one of them. If that node is good, every candidate is good, otherwise they are all bad.

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

(Including the speed of posting the editorial,) what a great contest!

I liked these problems (especially C & D) because their implementation will be quite simple if we could find out the essence.

Also the number of problems was just nice for a rated participant (like me) to solve them all in time (though I couldn’t solve E).

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +1 Vote: I do not like it
»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +16 Vote: I do not like it

How to calculate the probability of a hash failing for hashes like problem E?

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
    Rev. 4   Vote: I like it +13 Vote: I do not like it

    I did the same as the editorial with $$$5$$$ hashes, with $$$P = 10^9 + 7$$$ and $$$5$$$ randomized bases. With a polynomial hash like this the chance of a collision is basically the same as the chance that for an arbitrary polynomial of degree $$$n$$$, if you evaluate at a uniformly random $$$x$$$ that it is equal to $$$0\mod P$$$. A polynomial $$$\mod P$$$ has at most $$$n$$$ roots (if $$$P$$$ is prime). So the chance of a false positive for one hash is $$$n/P$$$. In this problem we actually check equality for $$$n^2$$$ pairs implicitly. So this means that the final probability of failure on one test with $$$5$$$ hashes is $$$ \leq 1 - (1 - (n/P)^5)^{n^2} \approx 1.3 \times 10^{-8}$$$. But seeing that solutions with fewer hashes also passed I think in general the $$$n/P$$$ is a big overestimate.

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Rev. 2   Vote: I like it +10 Vote: I do not like it

      Are you sure that a polynomial mod P of degree n has at most n roots? That doesn't seem trivial to me. Also about the N^2 thing, if the values of b^e mod P are different, you're left with only 1 candidate per vertex after hashing once. That whole N^2 thing seems different from what I have in mind but it might be just different solutions.

      • »
        »
        »
        »
        21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it +20 Vote: I do not like it

        I think it's true for polynomials in arbitrary fields. The proof relies on the fact that if you have a root of a polynomial, then you can write the polynomial $$$f(x) = (x- \texttt{root}) \times g(x)$$$, where $$$g(x)$$$ has degree $$$1$$$ less. By induction you can easily see it that the maximum number of roots is $$$n$$$.

        • »
          »
          »
          »
          »
          21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
            Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

          Nice. I was afraid of things not working as usual because x^(P-1) == x^0.

      • »
        »
        »
        »
        21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

        Assume the answer for a testcase should be 0. Then for your answer on the testcase to be wrong, it only has to happen once, that any of the hashes of the $$$n$$$ rooted trees coincides with any of the hashes of $$${ H+b^k, \text{for}\ 0 \leq k <n }$$$ (using editorial notation). So these are two (multi)sets of $$$n$$$ items, for each of the $$$n^2$$$ pairs, you are basically subtracting the corresponding polynomials, evaluating the polynomials at random points, and hoping that the result is not $$$0$$$, because then you mistakenly output some number of good roots $$$>0$$$.

      • »
        »
        »
        »
        21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

        Lagrange's theorem says that

      • »
        »
        »
        »
        21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

        Formal statement for arbitrary fields — Schwartz-Zippel Lemma

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
Rev. 2   Vote: I like it +11 Vote: I do not like it

D can be solved in $$$O(n\log n)$$$ time using convolution + D&C. My submission.

Edit: Time complexity is not $$$O(n\log n)$$$. It is $$$O(n \log^2n)$$$.

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    Can you provide resources about these topics, please? What is D&C?

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

      Divide and Conquer I suppose

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

      Convolution is multiplying two polynomials using FFT. D&C is Divide and Conquer. They are very standard topics, you can Google them.

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
    Rev. 2   Vote: I like it +46 Vote: I do not like it

    Isn't it $$$O(n \log^2(n))$$$?

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    Can you please explain further why fft and D&C come into play here?

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

      Since $$$c^{'}_i = c_i-1 \text{ or } c_i \implies \frac{c_i!}{c^{'}_i!} = c_i \text{ or } 1$$$

      We want to calculate sum of $$$\frac{1}{c^{'}_1! \cdot c^{'}_2! \dots c^{'}_t!}$$$

      Let us multiply and divide the summation by $$$(c_1!\cdot c_2! \dots c_t!)$$$
      We get $$$\frac{(c_1!\cdot c_2! \dots c_t!)}{(c_1!\cdot c_2! \dots c_t!)} \cdot \sum \frac{1}{c^{'}_1! \cdot c^{'}_2! \dots c^{'}_t!} = \frac{1}{(c_1!\cdot c_2! \dots c_t!)} \cdot [\sum (c_{i_1}\cdot c_{i_2} \dots c_{i_n})]$$$ where $$$c^{'}_{i_j} = c_{i_j}-1$$$

      So now we want to select $$$n$$$ elements from {$$$c_1, c_2, \dots, c_t$$$}, calculate its product, and then sum it over all ways of choosing $$$n$$$ such elements.
      To do that consider the polynomial $$$f = (1 + c_1 x)\cdot(1 + c_2 x) \dots (1 + c_t x)$$$. The coefficient of $$$x^n$$$ in this polynomial is exactly the value we are trying to calculate.

      Multiplying two polynomials of length $$$k$$$ can be done in $$$O(k \log k)$$$ time using FFT. But here we have $$$O(n)$$$ polynomials. So if we just keep multiplying from left-to-right it will take $$$O(n^2 \log n)$$$ time. One solution is to use a priority queue and keep multiplying the smallest two polynomials in the product.

      The other solution is to use divide and conquer. Recursively calculate the product of the first $$$\lceil\frac{t}{2}\rceil$$$ polynomials and the last $$$\lfloor \frac{t}{2} \rfloor$$$ polynomials. Both polynomials are of size at most $$$n$$$. Now use FFT to calculate product of the left-half and right-half in $$$O(n \log n)$$$. Overall time complexity can be proved to be $$$O(n \log^2 n)$$$

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
Rev. 2   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

Simple loop and if condition check solves C in O(n) time.

196053649

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
    Rev. 2   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    how u arrived at this one , plz give some hints

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
        Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

      I did observations from my local test case experiments. Whenever ans++, following condotion must met.

      int len = 1;
      		RREP(i, n) {
      			if (i>1) {
      				if (a[i - len] >= len + 1) len++;
      			}
      			cout << len << " ";
      		}
      
»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +7 Vote: I do not like it

Proof of $$$\frac{3}{2}n$$$ operations in problem B.

Proof
»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

Could some explain the reasoning behind the dp in question D?

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
Rev. 2   Vote: I like it +26 Vote: I do not like it

I think E can be solved without the $$$dp2$$$ array: let the hash of the current root be $$$cur$$$, then the hash for its child $$$u$$$ is $$$(cur - b \cdot dp_u) \cdot b + dp_u$$$, code: 196075156.

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +40 Vote: I do not like it

It seems that the author's solution for E has been hacked... https://codeforces.net/contest/1794/hacks/894254

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +49 Vote: I do not like it

    I should have chosen a non-hackable solution to publish in the editorial. It is fixed now.

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

HOW TO SOLVE PROBLEM D with N = 10^5 ?

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +20 Vote: I do not like it

    Following the same setup as the editorial, we need to find the sum of all the terms of the form $$$\frac{1}{c'_1!c'_2!c'_3!...}$$$, where $$$c_i$$$ is the frequency of the ith prime and $$$c'_i$$$ is the frequency after we've chosen the bases. Let's look at this problem another way, let's look at the polynomial $$$P(x) = (\frac{1}{c_1!}+\frac{1}{(c_1-1)!}x) * (\frac{1}{c_2!}+\frac{1}{(c_2-1)!}x) * ...$$$
    or in other words $$$P(x) = \Pi_{allprimes} (\frac{1}{c_i!}+\frac{1}{(c_i-1)!}x)$$$
    The coefficient of $$$x^n$$$ in this polynomial represents choosing the $$$x$$$ term $$$n$$$ times and the constant term the rest of the times, which is exactly what we want to do, we want to choose the prime as a base $$$n$$$ times. So if we choose our coefficients properly, this essentially gives us our answer. To calculate $$$P(x)$$$ you can use FFT (actually NTT) and Divide and Conquer to do it in $$$O(nlog^2(n))$$$

    Submission

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

Problem E — I am getting WA on TC 178, I used the same base and mod as that in the editorial. Can someone help? My submission : 196096531

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

    That was the previous editorial solution. Check the new one.

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +23 Vote: I do not like it

Hashing strategy in problem E is very nice. I want to say thanks to the author for being a reason to learn this strategy.

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

This code is giving random output on TC 6 pls help https://codeforces.net/contest/1794/submission/196113923

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it +15 Vote: I do not like it

    Just had to correct the size of the dp array.
    The max value of n is 2022, but the max number of input elements is (n * 2), i.e., 4044. And since the value of the array elements can be up to 10^6, it is possible that we have 4044 distinct primes in the input.
    Thus, changing the size of the array to [4045][4045] made the code pass: 196195253

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
Rev. 3   Vote: I like it -15 Vote: I do not like it

IN PROBLEM B: CAN ANY ONE EXPLAIN WHY MY CODE DIDN'T WORKED:

196123474

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    if(( arr[i]%arr[i-1]==0) ){

    #define r(i,n) for(int i=1;i<=n;i++)

    i = n then arr[n] but len(arr) = n !!

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
Rev. 2   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

Not able to figure out why i am getting correct ans in test 5 but WA in test 9 for problem D.

I have used a bottom-up dp.

could someone please help, my code

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +4 Vote: I do not like it

Problem D is nice!

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
Rev. 3   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

Can anyone help me make sense of something in problem E?

This submission got Wrong answer : https://codeforces.net/contest/1794/submission/196157777 but this one got Accepted : https://codeforces.net/contest/1794/submission/196160146

The only difference between them is that they have different primes numbers. I thought that the cause is a collision but i used the prime numbers of the judge's solution on the one that got wrong answer so the occurrence of collision doesn't make sense.

I would appreciate if anyone can help me understand the cause of that.

Edit: Hacked. but i still know why my code is wrong if someone can help?

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
    Rev. 2   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    Collision. Use 3+ mods and/or random bases to avoid hacks.

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it +29 Vote: I do not like it

I'll provide my generator for generating hacks on E, if anyone else wants to do more (and I know for certain that there are a lot more hackable solutions out there). Look for solutions that use some fixed pairs of base and modulo and place them in the pairs variable in the code. There were a few special cases that required another idea to hack but I won't describe the details unless requested.

Generator
  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    Can you explain how this generator works?

    • »
      »
      »
      21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Rev. 4   Vote: I like it +28 Vote: I do not like it

      For simplicity, consider a version of the problem where instead of $$$n-1$$$ distances being given, all $$$n$$$ distances are given. It's pretty similar when it comes to hacking. A solution takes the following form: pick some $$$r$$$ and $$$p$$$, and mark a vertex $$$v$$$ as good if

      $$$\displaystyle\sum_{u=1}^{n}r^{d(u, v)}\equiv \displaystyle\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}r^{a_i}\pmod{p}$$$

      where $$$d(u, v)$$$ is the distance from $$$u$$$ to $$$v$$$.

      We'll try to make vertex $$$1$$$ a false positive. Let $$$P$$$ be the polynomial defined by

      $$$P(x)=\displaystyle\sum_{u=1}^{n}x^{d(1, u)}-\displaystyle\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}x^{a_i}.$$$

      Then we should make it so that $P$ is not identically zero, yet $$$P(r)\equiv 0\pmod{p}$$$. Additionally, $$$P(1)=n-n=0$$$.

      There are pretty much no further constraints on the polynomials $$$P$$$ we can use now, aside from the coefficients not being too large so that the number of vertices is at most $$$2\cdot 10^5$$$. For example, if we have the polynomial $$$P(x)=-10+13x-3x^2$$$, then we can write it as a difference

      $$$P(x) = (1+13x+x^2)-(11+4x^2)$$$

      which means a graph with $15$ vertices where $$$13$$$ vertices are at distance $$$1$$$ from $$$1$$$, one vertex is at distance $$$2$$$, and the wrong distances consist of $$$11$$$ zeroes and $$$4$$$ twos. The graph is easy to construct from here. (For the actual version of the problem, just delete one copy of $$$0$$$.)

      To construct the polynomial, note that we can first find a polynomial with $$$P(r)=0\pmod{p}$$$ and then multiply it by $$$(x-1)$$$ to have $$$P(1)=0$$$. With $$$p$$$ on the order of $$$10^9$$$, we can use a birthday paradox approach. Generate random polynomials with small coefficients and check the residues $$$P(r) \pmod{p}$$$ until you find a collision $$$P_1(r)\equiv P_2(r)$$$ where $$$P_1\neq P_2$$$. Then we can use $$$P=P_1-P_2$$$ as our polynomial. Assuming the residues are uniformly random, this should take about $$$\sqrt{p}$$$ tries which is fine.

      To handle multiple hashes $$$(r_i, p_i)$$$, find a polynomial for each pair and then multiply them together. This works because if $$$P_i(r_i) \equiv 0 \pmod{p_i}$$$ then any multiple of $$$P_i$$$ also satisfies the same property. At some point the product polynomial's coefficients are too large but I was able to hack 5 hashes pretty easily.

      • »
        »
        »
        »
        20 months ago, # ^ |
          Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

        Wow, this is really cool — thanks for the detailed explanation!

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

Can somebody help me on problem D,this is my submission 196227451,thanks!

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
Rev. 2   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

In problem D, my code is giving correct output on all small test cases. But it is failing on large test cases. I am getting 'WA on Test 5' verdict. Please someone help me in correcting my code. Submission Link — https://codeforces.net/contest/1794/submission/196218425

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

C by fenwick link

  • »
    »
    21 month(s) ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    I had the same solution, but changing elements in the array filled with zeroes and then calculating the prefix sums at the end was enough. It works in $$$O(n)$$$.

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

I'm stuck on problem A. I tried using the following code to find two substrings of length n-1 and check if one of them is equal to its reverse, but it didn't pass the test. Can someone help me

int main() {
    int t;
    cin >> t;
    while (t--) {
        int n;
        cin >> n;
        
        vector<string> v(2*n - 2);
        for (int i = 0; i < 2*n - 2; i++) {
            cin >> v[i];
        }

        bool ok = true;
        for (int i = 0; i < 2*n - 2; i++) {
            if (v[i].size() == n-1) {
                string rev = v[i];
                reverse(rev.begin(), rev.end());
                if (find(v.begin(), v.end(), rev) == v.end()) {
                    ok = false;
                    break;
                }
            }
        }

        if (ok) cout << "YES\n";
        else cout << "NO\n";

    }
    return 0;
}

  • »
    »
    20 months ago, # ^ |
      Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

    it fails for string "bba" (sequence b b a bb ba)

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
Rev. 2   Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

Has anyone found a way (or, is it possible) to solve problem E without hashing or heuristics?

I really like the hashing approach, but I'm just curious about alternative solutions :)

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

I enjoyed this contest. Thanks for nice problems.

»
21 month(s) ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

E is interesting. I figured out all parts except the hash, thought there might be a collision.

»
20 months ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

can someone explain to me the dp part of problem d. i am still confused :/

»
20 months ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

MateoCV Thank you for such good problems and good round

»
18 months ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

my idea for problem C using queue

    int n;
       cin>>n;
        queue<int> q;
        for(int i=0;i<n;i++){
            int x;cin>>x;
            q.push(x);
            while(q.front() < q.size()) q.pop();
            cout<<q.size()<<" ";
        } cout<<endl;
»
15 months ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

C can be done in O(N) in an easy way To get an answer as t we need to have at least t elements which are greater then or equal to void solve() { int n; cin >> n; int t = 0, mx = 0; vector mp(n+1, 0); for(int i = 0; i < n; i++) { // to get ans as t shold have at least t elemetms which is >= t int d; cin >> d; mp[d]++; t++; int tmp = t; t -= mp[tmp-1]; mp[tmp-1] = 0; mx = max(mx, t); cout << mx << " "; } cout << endl; }

»
7 months ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

In B, Instead of going from left to right can't we go to left from right like this? - 258836011

»
5 months ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

For problem B

It is said that "Actually, the maximum number of operations performed by this algorithm is (3*n)/2. Try to prove it!"

I think the worst case for which this may arise is 1, 1, 1, 1, ...... n terms.

So if we try to maintain a even-odd manner.

2, 3, 2, 3, 2, 3 ...... n terms

So the operations required will be n+(n/2) = 3n/2 Since n/2 operations are done extra to convert even positioned 2 to 3.

Please correct if the prove is wrong anywahere.

»
4 months ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

A simple O(n) solution for C using a little reverse engg and prefix sums : https://codeforces.net/contest/1794/submission/272344196

»
6 weeks ago, # |
  Vote: I like it 0 Vote: I do not like it

The O(N) solution was more intuitive for the 3rd question. Here is my submission