pupsicek's blog

By pupsicek, 3 months ago, In English

I had nothing to do these eve, so I've collected data via codeforces api from the last three contests where was an enormous number of cheating attempts. With total number of approximately 4000 skipped submissions on problem A in these contests, the distribution of the cheaters that specified their countries is the following:

Assuming that those 3000 people that didn't specified their countries are distributed uniformly among the countries, the cheating leader is Japan, not India (though, it is very close to Japan and has the second place). Countries that are not depicted have $$$\le 10$$$ cheaters.

But still I think that most "anonymous" users are from India.

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By pupsicek, 3 months ago, In English

I haven't found neither the solution nor the statement of the problem, so I will share it.

The statement:

Given an odd prime integer $$$n\ge 3$$$, consider the binary array of length $$$n$$$ where the first element is one and all other are zeros. What is the total number of different arrays can be obtained by applying the following operation any number of times: let $$$a$$$ be the current array and let $$$b$$$ be the binary array of length $$$n$$$ such that for $$$1\le i\le n$$$ $$$b[i]=a[i] \oplus a[i \mod n+1]$$$, then the operation is — replace the current array $$$a$$$ with $$$b$$$, i.e cyclically shift the array by one to the left and XOR it with itself.

The somewhat similar statement has the problem 1848F - Вика и вики, but in this case we are given $$$n=2^i$$$ for some $$$i$$$ which simplifies the problem.

The partial solution:

solution

So I want to know, is it a well-known problem and why the assumption about the answer being

answer

is wrong for $$$n=37$$$.

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